Cisco Exploration CCNA - All Version - Free All

1. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)
• Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer
• Network Layer
• Transport Layer
• Presentation Layer
• Application Layer
2. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)
• ATM switches
• core routers
• CSU/DSU
• Ethernet switches
• Frame Relay switches
• repeaters
3. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?
• core router
• access server
• Frame Relay switch
• ATM switch
4. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?
• Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
• metro Ethernet
• Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
• Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)
5. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
• CIR
• DLCI
• DSLAM
• PVC
• SPID
• 53-byte cells
6. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
• ATM
• ISDN
• Frame Relay
• metro Ethernet
7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)
• low cost
• availability
• traffic encryption
• available bandwidth
• support for voice and video
8. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)
• DLCI
• circuit switching
• packet switching
• data bearer channels
• switched virtual circuits
• time-division multiplexing
9. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?
• smaller cells
• number of subscribers
• committed information rate
• distance from the central office of the provider
10. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?
• PVCs
• DLCIs
• tunnels
• virtual circuits
• dedicated Layer 2 links
11. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
• ATM
• ISDN
• analog dialup
• T1 Leased Line
12. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?
• CSU/DSU
• Frame Relay switch
• ISDN switch
• modem
• PBX switch
13. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• DTE
• DCE
• BRI
• PRI
14. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• dedicated switched lines
• frame-switched
• packet-switched
15. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI
16. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN switch
• Ethernet switch
17. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
• The purpose of the access layer is to provide very high bandwidth communications between network devices.
• Most security screening to prevent unauthorized entry to the network happens at the core layer.
• Untrusted external connections are segmented from the rest of the network at all three levels.
• The core layer uses high speed equipment to provide policy-based connectivity.
• The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.
18. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?
• Normally the CSU/DSU is the designated demarcation point for the service provider but not the customer.
• The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the “last mile.”
• The local loop is the segment between the CSU/DSU and the serial port on a router.
• Putting data on the local loop is the responsibility of the DTE.
19. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?
• WANs generally support higher bandwidth than LANs support.
• A WAN link typically traverses shorter geographic distances than a LAN link traverses.
• A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.
• All WAN implementations generally use the same Layer 2 protocol but there are many accepted LAN Layer 2 protocols in use.
20. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?
• Routing protocols are incompatible with this function.
• It restricts the communication sent to voice traffic only.
• A telephone must be used to initially start transferring data.
• Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.
21. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?
• ATM differs from other WAN protocols in that it uses variably sized packets.
• Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
• The frame header consists of the frame check sequence and cyclic redundancy check.
• ISDN differs from Frame Relay, HDLC, and ATM in that it is packet-switched rather than circuit-switched technology.
22. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?
• Packet-switched networks are less susceptible to jitter than circuit-switched networks are.
• Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
• Packet-switched networks do not require an expensive permanent connection to each endpoint.
• Packet-switched networks usually experience lower latency than circuit-switched networks experience.

1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

ATM

4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

analog dialup

5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.

6. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the "last mile."

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

low cost
availability

8. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

number of subscribers

9. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?

CSU/DSU

10. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

Physical Layer
Data Link Layer

11. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

ATM

12. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.

13. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?

access server

14. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

15. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

circuit switching
data bearer channels
time-division multiplexing

16. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
CIR
DLCI
PVC

17. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

modem
CSU/DSU

18. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

metro Ethernet

19. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

ATM switches
core routers
Frame Relay switches

20. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

dedicated switched lines

21. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

tunnels

22. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

DCE

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. Theshow ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on theSwitch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in theexhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be appliedto the switch?
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
• Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
• 802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame. • 802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
3. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
• All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
• Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
• The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4. Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
• SSID
• OFDM
• WEP
• DSSS
5. Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?
• SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.
• SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.
• SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6. Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
• QoS
• routing
• trunking
• VPN
7. Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
• S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
• S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
• S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
• S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
• This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
• This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
• This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
• This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
• S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
• R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
• The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
• Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
• Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
• Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
• Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
• Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
• Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
• Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
• Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
12. What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
• A new RSA key pair is created.
• The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
• The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
• The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
13. Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
• forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3
• add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table
• forward the frame out Interface3
• discard the frame
• forward the frame out all interfaces
• forward the frame out Interface2
14. Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
• It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
• It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
• It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
• It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
• It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.
15. Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
• 192.168.1.11 /28
• 192.168.1.22 /28
• 192.168.1.33 /28
• 192.168.1.44 /28
• 192.168.1.55 /28
16. Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
• SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
• SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
• SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
• SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17. Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
• An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
• A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.
18. Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
• computer B
• computer B and Router1
• computer C and Router1
• computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
• computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• The SSH version number is wrong.
• SSH has been configured on the wrong line.
• Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.
• The transport input command is configured incorrectly.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
• Cat-A
• Cat-B
• Cat-C
• Cat-D
21. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
• VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
• VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
• VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005
22. Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?
• The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.
• Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.
• This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
• The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
• When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
23. Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
• requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
• requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
• more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
• requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
• can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
• makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces
24. Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
• The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
• The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)
• S1-Central# reload
• S1-Central# erase flash:
• S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
• S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
• S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3
26. Refer to the exhibit. What does “FORWARDING” mean in the command output shown?
• The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
• The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
• The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
• Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
• Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
• Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
• Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28. What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
• reduced contention for bandwidth
• reduced size of the physical layout
• increased fault tolerance of the network
• elimination of the need for wiring closets
• elimination of the need for layer three functionality
• simplification of management and troubleshooting
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
• A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
• The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
• A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
• Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
• An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.
30. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
• All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
• SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
• VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
• The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
• AS1 and AS2
• DS1 and DS2
• Gateway and CS1
• Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32. Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)
• Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
• Enable password is configured as cisco.
• All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
• The flash directory contains the IOS image.
• VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
• All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.
33. Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
34. Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
• The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
• The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
• The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
• The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
35. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
• Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
• Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
• Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
• Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
• Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
36. What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
• Select the correct VTP mode and version.
• Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
• Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
• Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
• Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
• Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
• only hosts A and B
• only hosts A, B, and C
• only hosts A, B, C, and D
• only hosts A, B, C, and E
38. Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is ?
• The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
• The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
• To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.
39. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
• This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
• A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
• Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
• Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
• The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.
40. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)
• The switch ports are on different VLANs.
• The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
• The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
• A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
• The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
• The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
41. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
• switch A
• switch B
• switch C
• switch D
• switch E
• switch F
42. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?
• hub HB1
• switch SW1
• router R1
• switch SW2
• router R2
• switch SW4
43. Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
• The network diameter limitation is 9.
• BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
• The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
• The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.
44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
• Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
• Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
• No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
• One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45. What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
• disable port security
• make the port operational
• override the default port behavior
• force the port to be a part of a single vlan
46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is regarding the information shown?
• Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
• The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
• Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs
47. Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
• AID
• SSID
• BSSID
• ESSID
48. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?
• A syslog message will be logged.
• Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
• The incoming frames will be dropped.
• The security violation count will be incremented.
49. In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
• client
• root
• server
• transparent
50. Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
• Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
• Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
• From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
• Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.
51. What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
• Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses
• The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
• The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
• The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
• Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.
52. What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
• requires less equipment
• provides improved range
• permits increased data rates
• has a single-input and a single-output
• needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

Tke Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

1	Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem? The switch must be configured with SSH version 1. The transport input command must specify Telnet access. The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access. The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
2	Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology? It is sending and receiving data frames. It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

3	Which parameter is a specific frequency at which a wireless access point will operate? BSS WEP SSID ad hoc channel
4	What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config? The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server. The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1. The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config. The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.

5	What identifier in the BPDU creates a unique BID for a switch? IP address MAC address bridge priority VLAN ID port priority
6	Refer to the exhibit. A wireless infrastructure has been established in a company building as shown. The design goal was to allow roaming between the three APs for handheld devices. However, the devices lose connectivity when the users roam. How can this problem be fixed? Assign different SSIDs to each AP. Reconfigure all APs to the same channel. Use the same BSSID address for each AP. Reposition the APs so that each area of signal strength overlaps the neighbor by at least 10-15%.

7	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement? Use SSH version 1. Reconfigure the RSA key. Configure SSH on a different line. Modify the transport input command.
8	How does Spanning Tree Protocol aid network architecture? allows for redundant links by eliminating loops provides greater scalability by eliminating collisions reduces switch processor load by reducing broadcast traffic on trunk links reduces administrative overhead by sharing VLAN databases between switches across the network

9	Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host? 192.168.1.22 /28 192.168.1.31 /28 192.168.1.32 /28 192.168.1.52 /28 192.168.1.63 /28
10	In setting up a wireless infrastructure network, which device is used to associate a client computer to the network? an Ethernet switch a wireless access point another wireless computer a hard-wired computer on the network

11	Which statement about STP network diameter is correct? STP diameters are restricted by convergence times. Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter. Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter. Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.
12	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN that are connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem? Introduce a Layer 3 device in the topology. Configure both switches in VTP transparent mode to allow them to share VLAN information. Reconfigure the fa0/1 interface on switch SW1 with a static trunk configuration. Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to FastEthernet 0/1 on SW1 and FastEthernet 0/2 on SW2.

13	Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1? Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port. Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
14	Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.) After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked. Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist. The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision. Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media. If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

15	What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.) Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment. The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch. The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs. Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router. The router should be configured as the VTP server.

16	Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What needs to be done to resolve the problem? Rename VLAN1. Connect one more port of S1 to R1. Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as a trunk port. Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN.
17	Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces? zero one two four

18	Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet? The router will drop the packet. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
19	Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown? This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator. When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port. Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18. The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

20	Which parameter is associated with wireless authentication? shared key SSID ad hoc channel
21	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal? all hosts that are shown only hosts B and C only hosts A, B, and C only hosts A, B, C, and D only hosts A, D, E, and F only hosts D, E, and F

22	What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN? Connect each PC directly to a router port. Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network. Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches. Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
23	Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLAN(s) will be allowed on the trunk to SW2 by SW4? VLAN 20 only VLAN 10 and VLAN 30 VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 VLAN 1, VLAN 20 and VLANs 1002 through 1005

24	What is the correct order in which the STP components are chosen? designated ports, nondesignated ports, root bridge, root ports nondesignated ports, designated ports, root ports, root bridge root bridge, root ports, designated ports, nondesignated ports root ports, root bridge, nondesignated ports, designated ports
25	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision? hub HB1 switch SW1 router R1 switch SW2 router R2 switch SW4

26	Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.) The switch ports are on different VLANs. The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet. The hosts are configured on different logical networks. A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2. The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN. The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
27	Which statement is correct about STP architecture? Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology. Spanning Tree Protocol guarantees the shortest path to destination networks. The switch with the highest priority will be assigned the lowest BID in the root election. The first step in the spanning-tree election process is to determine the root port. To select designated ports, the spanning-tree algorithm must determine the longest contiguous path from the root bridge.

28	While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide? This allows the switch to host web pages for the network. This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet. This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch. This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.
29	What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.) requires less equipment provides improved range permits increased data rates has a single-input and a single-output needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

30

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to Switch1. However, the SSH connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem? The RSA key has been removed. SSH has been configured on the wrong line. The transport input command is applied incorrectly. The domain name has been configured in the wrong configuration mode.

31	Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem? SW1(config)# vtp version 1 SW2(config)# vtp mode client SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1 SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent
32	Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting? user EXEC mode privileged EXEC mode global configuration mode interface configuration mode

33	Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem? Relocate the APs closer to each other. Increase the distance between the clients. Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11. Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
34	A switch that is using port-based memory buffering receives two incoming frames on the same port. The destination port for the first frame that is received is busy. How will the switch handle the second frame that it received? The second frame will have to wait to be delivered even if its destination port is available. The second frame will be delivered to the memory buffer for its destination port. The second frame will be placed in a common memory buffer to await delivery. The second frame will be dropped.

35	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem? There is a native VLAN mismatch. The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk. The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked. VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
36	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem? All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2. SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain. VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1. The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

37	Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem? The command contained a syntax error. The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer. The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch. The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
38	Refer to the exhibit. Which two options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose two.) Routing between the 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.3.0 networks will not succeed until a routing protocol is configured on the router. VLANs have not been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design. Trunking has been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces. An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.

39	Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a "password required, but none set" message when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem? The enable secret password was not set. S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines. S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines. The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords. The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
40	Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured R1 and S1 as displayed. However, PC1 is unable to access PC2. What is the likely problem? No routing protocol is configured on R1. The Fa0/1 port of S1 is not a trunk port. The default gateway address is not set on S1. Only one physical link between S1 and R1 is configured for inter-VLAN routing.

41	Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced? Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s. Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2. Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch. Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
42	Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.) This switch is not the root bridge. The Fa0/24 port is administratively down. STP has detected links that create a loop. There is a change in the VTP configuration. The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.

43	Which three actions are performed during the boot sequence of a Cisco switch? (Choose three.) The boot loader uses the self-contained switch operating system to boot the switch. The boot loader retrieves diagnostics routines via TFTP. The boot loader performs POST. The boot loader is loaded from RAM. The boot loader initializes the flash file system that is used to boot the system. The boot loader loads the default operating system if the flash-based operating system is corrupt or missing.
44	Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless access device? a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it

45	Refer to the exhibit. RTB is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. RTB can ping computer A but cannot ping computer B. What is a possible cause of this failure? Port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN. RTB does not have an active routing protocol. The IP address of computer B is in the wrong logical network. Router interface Fa0/1 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

46	In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements? client root server transparent
47	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information? Disable VTP pruning on SW2. Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode. Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password. Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

48	Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router? WEP identifies the wireless LAN. WEP allows the access point to inform clients of its presence. WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names. WEP encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point. WEP ensures that only authenticated users are allowed access to the WLAN. WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
49	Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y? QoS routing trunking VPN

50	Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with the default bridge priority. Which port will act as a non-designated port if all links are operating at the same bandwidth? Fa0/1 interface of switch A Fa0/2 interface of switch A Fa0/1 interface of switch B Fa0/2 interface of switch B Fa0/1 interface of switch C Fa0/2 interface of switch C
51	What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks? DSSS OFDM SSID WPA

52

Refer to the exhibit. Computer D sends a broadcast message. Which devices will process the broadcast message? computer E computer D and computer E computer D, computer E, and Router1 computer B and computer E computer B, computer E, and Router1 computer C, computer D, and computer E computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1 computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer