Showing posts with label CCNA v4. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CCNA v4. Show all posts

View CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 8 (100%)

1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

data link

2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.


3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?

network analyzer

7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7

8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?

Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?

baselining tool

10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)

A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?

The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.

13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?

determining ownership

14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

transport layer
application layer

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

physical

16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?

bottom up

17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

application

20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?

data link

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View CCNA 4 - Final Exam Answers

1
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
*** A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
*** A modem terminates an analog local loop.
*** A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

2
What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
*** DLCI

3

The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
*** The usernames are misconfigured.

4
The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)

*** There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.

There is no clock present on the serial interface.

The interface is shut down.

RARP is not functioning on the router.

*** The cable is disconnected.

5
Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)

*** The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).

*** The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.

The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.

*** The point is called the demarcation point.

The point is typically located at the service provider’s central office.

The point is located between the customer’s local area networks.

6
While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?

show interfaces serial 0/0

show version

*** show controllers serial 0/0

show protocols serial 0/0

show status serial 0/0

7

A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The DHCP server service is not enabled.

The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.

*** The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8
A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)

*** Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.

A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.

*** All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.

A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.

An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9
When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)

when the remote router is a non-Cisco router

*** when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP

when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier

*** when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled

when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10

Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?

RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2

RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast

*** RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast

RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast

RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast

RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11
Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?

*** ITU-T Q.921

ITU-T Q.931

ITU-T I.430

ITU-T I.431

12
What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)

*** create a full-mesh topology

disable Inverse ARP

*** use point-to-point subinterfaces

use multipoint subinterfaces

remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13

What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

*** defines which addresses are allowed into the router

defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14

A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.

What should the administrator do to solve the problem?

Add a clock rate on RouterA.

Enable the serial interface on RouterB.

*** Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.

Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.

Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15
An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?

change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

remove the dialer list statement from the configuration

*** change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting

disable inverse ARP

16
Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?

1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made

1,2,3,4

1,3,2,4

2,3,1,4

2,1,3,4

*** 3,2,1,4

3,1,2,4

17
Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?

NAT with DHCP

Frame Relay

HDLC with encryption

HDLC with CHAP

PPP with PAP

*** PPP with CHAP

18
Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)

create subinterfaces

define the LMI type

*** set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch

set the interface DLCI

*** set the switch type

specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19
A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?

use PPP multilink

lower idle timer setting

use CHAP authentication

*** change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20
A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)

*** The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary “Type” field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.

HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.

*** PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.

Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.

The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.

There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21

Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

*** The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.

The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.

*** The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.

The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.

The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22

The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?

The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.

The usernames are misconfigured.

The clock rate must be 56000.

The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

*** The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.

Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23
What causes a DDR call to be placed?

dial string

DLCI

idle time out

*** interesting traffic

PVC

24
Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?

Application Layer, Physical Layer

*** Data Link Layer, Physical Layer

Data Link Layer, Transport Layer

Physical Layer, Network Layer

25

A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?

The routers are configured for different encapsulations.

*** The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.

The circuit from WAN provider has failed.

Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.

The circuit is functioning properly.

26
A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)

*** Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.

Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.

Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.

Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.

*** Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27
When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)

*** Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.

Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.

Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.

The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.

*** The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

28

A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?

There is not a route to the remote router.

The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.

*** The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.

The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29
What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active

*** 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.

172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.

DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.

broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.

*** dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.

active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30
What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?

*** The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.

The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.

The DLCI is usable but has little activity.

The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

31
Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)

*** 192.168.146.0/22

172.10.25.0/16

*** 172.31.0.0/16

20.0.0.0/8

*** 10.172.92.8/29

32
After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)

PPP authentication is not properly configured.

*** No dialer map is configured.

The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.

*** No interesting traffic is defined.

No route is determined to the remote network.

*** A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33
Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?

frame-relay pvc multipoint

frame-relay pvc point-to-point

encapsulation frame-relay cisco

*** encapsulation frame-relay ietf

frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34
Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?

X.25

DSL

*** ISDN

cable modem

35
After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?

show dialer

show isdn status

*** show interfaces bri0/0:1

show interfaces serial0/0.1

36
A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?

Install and configure a PRI.

Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.

Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.

*** Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.

Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37
A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?

Configure static NAT for all ten users.

*** Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.

Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.

Configure DHCP and static NAT.

What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38
Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)

circuit-switched

*** connection oriented

OSI Layer 3

*** packet-switched

reliable

39
Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?

authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols

authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment

network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication

network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment

*** link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols

link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

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1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

209.165.20.25

3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

16

4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.

5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?

Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)

179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101

8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding

9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.

10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?

0

11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

access-list statement

12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?

8

13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

defines which addresses can be translated

14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?

Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)

Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.

16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

172.30.20.2

17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?

static NAT

18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?

64

19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?

The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.

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View CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 1 (100%)

1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

ATM

4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?

analog dialup

5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?

Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.

6. Which statement is true about data connectivity between a customer and a service provider?

The segment between the demarcation point and the central office is known as the “last mile.”

7. What are two advantages of an analog PSTN WAN connection? (Choose two.)

low cost
availability

8. What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a cable broadband connection?

number of subscribers

9. For digital lines, which device is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop?

CSU/DSU

10. At which two layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate? (Choose two.)

Physical Layer
Data Link Layer

11. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?

ATM

12. Which statement is true about the differences between a WAN and a LAN?

A WAN often relies on the services of carriers, such as telephone or cable companies, but a LAN does not.

13. Which networking device is typically used to concentrate the dial-in and dial-out traffic of multiple users to and from a network?

access server

14. Why is the call setup time of a circuit-switched WAN implementation considered a drawback?

Data cannot be transferred until a circuit has been established.

15. What three terms are associated with ISDN PRI? (Choose three.)

circuit switching
data bearer channels
time-division multiplexing

16. Which three features are identified with Frame Relay connections? (Choose three.)
CIR
DLCI
PVC

17. Which two devices are commonly used as data communications equipment? (Choose two.)

modem
CSU/DSU

18. Which packet-switched WAN technology offers high-bandwidth connectivity capable of managing data, voice, and video all on the same infrastructure?

metro Ethernet

19. Which three WAN devices can be found in the cloud? (Choose three.)

ATM switches
core routers
Frame Relay switches

20. Which switching type will allow the communication devices in the provider network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?

dedicated switched lines

21. What type of connectivity is established when VPNs are used from the remote site to the private network?

tunnels

22. Which term describes a device that will put data on the local loop?

DCE

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View CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 1 (100%)

1. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)

10 Gigabit Ethernet
quality of service (QoS)
hot-swappable hardware

2. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?

Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.

3. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?

Layer 2

4. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?

A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.

5. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?

Layer 3

6. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?

core layer

7. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?

redundancy

8. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?

access

9. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?

access layer

10. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)

high forwarding rate
support link aggregation

11. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?

quality of service

12. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?

distribution

13. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?

access, distribution, and core

14. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?

link aggregation

15. What statement best describes a modular switch?

flexible characteristics

16. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)

Quality of Service
link aggregation

17. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)

traffic flow analysis
expected future growth

18. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
security policies
quality of service
Layer 3 functionality

19. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?

StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

20. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?

redundancy

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