CCNA 4 - Final Exam (D) Lastest version (100%)
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1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
*Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.
5. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
*boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes
6. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
*CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
*The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
8. Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
*It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
*It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
*It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
*interface Fa0/1, outbound
10. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
*The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.
11. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
hashing
12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
**Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.
13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted.
FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out.
14. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)
**exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
**copies itself to the host and selects new targets
15. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
**broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
16. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT.
Configure static NAT with overload.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?
all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
**requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded
18. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
19. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
**A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.
22. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
**to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers
23. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
**access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache
24. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
**IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.
25. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
**unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure
26. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
**simple flow control
error notification
congestion notification
mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
**exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits
27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.
28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device?
It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software.
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
**It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.
29. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
**demarcation point
demilitarized zone
30. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.)
EAP
**CHAP
IPCP
CDPCP
**stacker
31. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?
DLCI 123
**DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router
32. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
33. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a “1″ in the wildcard mask.
**IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a “0″ in the wildcard mask.
34. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1″. What is the problem?
The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
35.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
36. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
**Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
**Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.
37. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
38. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication
39. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .
40. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
**The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses
43. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
44. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application
transport
**network
data link
physical
45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
**network layer
data link layer
physical layer
46. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
**source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
47. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
**Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.
48. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
**application layer
49. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
**PPP negotiation failure
50. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
**HDLC
Frame Relay
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*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
*Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.
5. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
*boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes
6. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
*CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
*The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
8. Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
*It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
*It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
*It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
*interface Fa0/1, outbound
10. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
*The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.
11. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
hashing
12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
**Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.
13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted.
FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out.
14. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)
**exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
**copies itself to the host and selects new targets
15. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
**broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
16. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT.
Configure static NAT with overload.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?
all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
**requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded
18. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
19. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
**A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.
22. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
**to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers
23. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
**access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache
24. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
**IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.
25. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
**unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure
26. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
**simple flow control
error notification
congestion notification
mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
**exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits
27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.
28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device?
It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software.
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
**It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.
29. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
**demarcation point
demilitarized zone
30. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.)
EAP
**CHAP
IPCP
CDPCP
**stacker
31. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?
DLCI 123
**DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router
32. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
33. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a “1″ in the wildcard mask.
**IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a “0″ in the wildcard mask.
34. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1″. What is the problem?
The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
35.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
36. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
**Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
**Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.
37. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
38. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication
39. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .
40. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
**The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses
43. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
44. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application
transport
**network
data link
physical
45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
**network layer
data link layer
physical layer
46. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
**source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
47. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
**Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.
48. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
**application layer
49. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
**PPP negotiation failure
50. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
**HDLC
Frame Relay
Labels: CCNA 4 - Final
1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
• cable types
• connector types
• interface identifiers
• DLCI for virtual circuits
• operating system versions
2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
• incorrect encapsulation
• incorrect STP configuration
• incorrect ARP mapping
• incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• information about the network design
• IP addressing allocation on the network
• requirements about the service provider setup
• requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
• expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
• TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
• Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
• The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
• The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
• Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the
• application servers in the data center.
• The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
• Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.
8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
• bottom up
• top down
• divide and conquer
• middle out
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
• baselining tool
• knowledge base
• protocol analyzer
• cable tester
10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
• cable analyzer
• network analyzer
• protocol analyzer
• knowledge base
11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
• physical
• data link
• network
• application
12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
• narrowing the scope
• gathering symptoms from suspect devices
• analyzing existing symptoms
• determining ownership
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
• A carrier detect signal is present.
• Keepalives are being received successfully.
• Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
• Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
• The reliability of this link is very low.
• The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
• Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
• An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
• The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper
• layers.
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
• application
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical
16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15
18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer
• application layer
19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
• All layers
• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
• Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
• Layer 6 and Layer 7
20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
• Determine fault.
• Get to know the user to build trust.
• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
• Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
-->Read More...
• cable types
• connector types
• interface identifiers
• DLCI for virtual circuits
• operating system versions
2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
• incorrect encapsulation
• incorrect STP configuration
• incorrect ARP mapping
• incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• information about the network design
• IP addressing allocation on the network
• requirements about the service provider setup
• requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
• expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
• TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
• Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
• The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
• The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
• Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the
• application servers in the data center.
• The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
• Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.
8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
• bottom up
• top down
• divide and conquer
• middle out
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
• baselining tool
• knowledge base
• protocol analyzer
• cable tester
10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
• cable analyzer
• network analyzer
• protocol analyzer
• knowledge base
11. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
• physical
• data link
• network
• application
12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
• narrowing the scope
• gathering symptoms from suspect devices
• analyzing existing symptoms
• determining ownership
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
• A carrier detect signal is present.
• Keepalives are being received successfully.
• Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
• Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
• The reliability of this link is very low.
• The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
14. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
• Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
• An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
• The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper
• layers.
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
• application
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical
16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15
18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer
• application layer
19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
• All layers
• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
• Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
• Layer 6 and Layer 7
20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
• Determine fault.
• Get to know the user to build trust.
• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
• Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
Labels: CCNA 4 - Chapter 8
1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
network analyzer
7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool
10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
determining ownership
14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
transport layer
application layer
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
physical
16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up
17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
application
20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
data link
-->Read More...
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
network analyzer
7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool
10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
determining ownership
14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
transport layer
application layer
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
physical
16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up
17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
application
20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
data link
Labels: CCNA 4 - Chapter 8
1. Why is it important to record baseline measurements of a prototype network?
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk*
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief
3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.
5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.
6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• Forwarding
• learning
• listening
7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.
8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1*
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3
9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.
10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.
12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing
13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?
• STP*
• BGP
• RSTP
• HSRP
14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator*
• a physical topology map
15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2
18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.
19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer
20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the “Role” column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.
21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• Designated
-->Read More...
• Test results show security weaknesses after the baseline tests are run.
• The baseline is the point at which the network is operating at its fullest potential.
• Baseline measurements define a point at which network traffic has exceeded the designed capabilities of the network.
• Test results are compared to the baseline to see how the test conditions increase processor use or decrease available bandwidth.
2. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing, verification of VLAN connectivity is being performed. Based on the information shown, what command produced the output?
• show spanning-tree
• show interfaces trunk*
• show cdp neighbors
• show interfaces
• show ip interface brief
3. How do designers decide which network functions need to be included in the prototype test?
• They select the functions that align with the business goals.
• They select the functions that occur at the network core.
• They select the functions that do not exist in the existing network.
• They select the functions from a list of generic network operations.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been given the task of creating a design for a temporary classroom building that is to be set up outside an overcrowded school. In testing the prototype, it is found that the student PC cannot ping the teacher PC. All the switch interfaces are active and connected properly, as is interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given that only the commands shown have been added to the router configuration, what is the source of the problem?
• The IP settings on the student PC are incorrect.
• The default gateway on the teacher PC is misconfigured.
• The router Fa0/0 interface has not been configured as a VLAN trunk.
• The Fa0/0 physical interface has not been configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The administrator forgot to configure a routing protocol to allow the ping packets to reach the teacher PC subnet.
5. Refer to the exhibit. What two measures can be taken to address the areas of weakness circled in the network design? (Choose two.)
• Provide redundant connections to all end users.
• Add another core switch to increase redundancy.
• Add a switch in the server block connecting the server farm to each core switch.
• Add an additional switch to the DMZ and direct links from the new switch to the core switches.
• Provide a redundant firewall router connecting to a second ISP, the core switches, and the DMZ.
6. Refer to the exhibit. After all the interfaces have stabilized, what is the spanning-tree state of all the enabled interfaces of SW11?
• discarding
• Forwarding
• learning
• listening
7. A network engineer has decided to pilot test a portion of a new network design rather than rely on a prototype for proof-of-concept. What are two advantages of pilot testing a design concept? (Choose two.)
• The test network experiences real-world network traffic.
• Users within the enterprise are not affected by the test.
• Network response can be tested in unplanned and unpredictable situations.
• Unlikely failure conditions can be conveniently tested.
• Network response can be tested in a highly controlled simulated environment.
8. Refer to the exhibit. During prototype testing of the Cisco network shown, connectivity must be verified. Assuming all connections are working and CDP is enabled on all devices and interfaces, on which device was the command issued?
• R1*
• S1
• R3
• S2
• R5
• S3
9. Switch port Fa0/24 was previously configured as a trunk, but now it is to be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/24?
• Use the switchport mode access command from interface configuration mode.
• Enter the switchport nonegotiate command from interface configuration mode.
• Administratively shut down and re-enable the interface to return it to the default.
• Enter the no switchport mode trunk command in interface configuration mode.
• Use the switchport access vlanvlan number command from interface configuration mode to remove the port from the trunk and add it to a specific VLAN.
10. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is performing an initial installation of a new switch in the east wing. The technician removes the switch from the box, makes the connections to the network, and adds the configuration shown. The technician notifies the network administrator that the switch has been installed. When the network administrator at the home office attempts to telnet to the switch from host 192.168.0.1, the connection fails. What action should the network technician take?
• Add an enable password to the switch.
• Add a default gateway to the switch configuration.
• Configure the switch with an IP access list to permit the host connection.
• Enable the physical interfaces of the switch with the no shutdown command.
11. Refer to the exhibit. The redundant paths are of equal bandwidth and EIGRP is the routing protocol in use. Which statement describes the data flow from Server to PC2?
• EIGRP load balances across the R3 to R1 and R3 to R2 links.
• EIGRP load balances across the R1 to Switch3 and R2 to Switch3 paths.
• EIGRP load balances across the Switch1 to Switch3 and Switch1 to Switch2 paths.
• EIGRP does not load balance in this topology.
12. In the router command encapsulation dot1q 10, what does the number 10 represent?
• the metric used for a particular route
• the number of the VLAN associated with the encapsulated subinterface
• the priority number given to the device for the election process
• the number that must match the Fast Ethernet subinterface number
• the number used to program the router for unequal cost path load balancing
13. Which protocol allows a switch port to transition directly to the forwarding state after a failure is detected?
• STP*
• BGP
• RSTP
• HSRP
14. A network designer needs to determine if a proposed IP addressing scheme allows efficient route summarization and provides the appropriate amount of scalability to a design. What is useful for validating a proposed hierarchical IP addressing scheme?
• NBAR
• a pilot network
• a route summary
• a network simulator*
• a physical topology map
15. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer creates a test plan that includes the specification shown. In which section of the test plan would this specification be found?
• Test Description
• Test Procedures
• Design and Topology Diagram
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
16. While preparing a network test plan document, a network designer records all initial and modified device configurations. Which section of the document typically contains this information?
• Appendix
• Test Procedures
• Test Description
• Actual Results and Conclusions
• Anticipated Results and Success Criteria
17. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the 192.168.10.192 network are not allowed Internet access. The network design calls for an extended ACL to be developed and tested. Where should the ACL be placed for the least effect on other network traffic?
• inbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/0 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• outbound on Fa0/1 of R3
• inbound on Fa0/1 of R2
• outbound on S0/0 of R2
18. Refer to the exhibit. Why are interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 not shown in this switch output?
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are trunks.*
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are shutdown.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 are blocking.
• Interfaces Fa0/11, Fa0/23, and Fa0/24 failed diagnostics.
19. What OSI model Layer 2 security measure can a network engineer implement when prototyping network security?
• a firewall at the network edge
• port security at the access design layer
• port security at the distribution design layer
• IP access control lists at the access design layer
20. Refer to the exhibit. During prototyping, Layer 2 functionality is being tested. Based on the output shown, which two pieces of information can be determined? (Choose two.)
• Switch1 is the root bridge.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 has no role in the operation of spanning tree.
• Interface Fa0/2 on Switch1 is the alternate port used to reach the root bridge.
• Based on the entries in the “Role” column, it can be concluded that RSTP has been implemented.
• Interface Fa0/1 on Switch1 is the forwarding port selected for the entire spanning-tree topology.
21. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) state is given to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• root
• backup
• alternate
• Designated
Labels: CCNA 4 - Chapter 7
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 7 (100%) Latest Answers
0 comments Posted by GOSSIP - HOT 247 [d0t] Us at 9:43 AM
1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding
9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
access-list statement
12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
8
13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
172.30.20.2
17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
static NAT
18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
64
19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
-->Read More...
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding
9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
access-list statement
12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
8
13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
172.30.20.2
17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
static NAT
18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
64
19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
Labels: CCNA 4 - Chapter 7
1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths
• access method
• maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
• compression techniques
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
• use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic
4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
• cable
• DSL
• ISDN
• POTS
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.
6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
• accounting
• authentication
• authorization
• data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity
7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• ESP
• hashing algorithms
• smart cards
• WPA
8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
• hashing
• passwords
9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
• AH
• hash
• MPLS
• RSA
10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
• Diffie-Hellman
• digital certificate
• pre-shared key
• RSA signature
11. Which statement describes cable?
• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.
12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker’s site?
• a WiMAX tower
• a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
• an access point connected to the company WLAN
13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users
14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
• Data is flowing downstream.
• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.
• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
• L2TP
• ESP
• GRE
• PPTP
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• IPsec
• IPX
• MPLS
• PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
• a GRE tunnel
• a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
-->Read More...
• users are on a shared medium
• uses RF signal transmission
• local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
• physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
• user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
2. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
• channel widths
• access method
• maximum data rate
• modulation techniques
• compression techniques
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
• use higher RF frequencies
• allocate an additional channel
• subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
• reduce the length of the local loop to 5.5 kilometers or less
• use filters and splitters at the customer site to separate voice from data traffic
4. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
• cable
• DSL
• ISDN
• POTS
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator hasdecided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the resultof this solution?
• A reliable connection is established at greater speeds than what is offered from dialup over POTS. Security is increased, but username and password information are sent in plain text.
• The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN clientsoftware.
• Security and reliability are increased at a substantial loss in throughput, which is considered acceptable when supporting asingle user environment.
• Reliability and security are increased without the need for additional equipment, when compared to dialup connections usingPOTS.
6. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
• accounting
• authentication
• authorization
• data availability
• data confidentiality
• data integrity
7. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• ESP
• hashing algorithms
• smart cards
• WPA
8. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
• digital certificates
• encryption
• encapsulation
• hashing
• passwords
9. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
• AES
• DES
• AH
• hash
• MPLS
• RSA
10. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
• Diffie-Hellman
• digital certificate
• pre-shared key
• RSA signature
11. Which statement describes cable?
• Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstreamfrequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
• The cable subscriber must purchase a cable modem termination system (CMTS)
• Each cable subscriber has dedicated upstream and downstream bandwidth.
• Cable subscribers may expect up to 27 Mbps of bandwidth on the upload path.
12. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at theteleworker’s site?
• a WiMAX tower
• a one-way multicast satellite
• a WiMAX receiver
• an access point connected to the company WLAN
13. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX)telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
• supports municipal wireless networks utilizing mesh technologies
• covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
• supports point-to-point links, but not full mobile cellular-type access
• connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
• operates at lower speeds than Wi-Fi, but supports many more users
14. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statementdescribes the situation observed by the technician?
• Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
• Data is flowing downstream.
• Cable television transmissions are interfering with voice and data transmissions.
• The system is experiencing congestion in the lower frequency ranges.
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network.
• Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
• Locations C, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A and B require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installedon the edge of the network.
• Locations C and E can support VPN connectivity. Locations A, B, and D require an additional PIX Firewall appliance installed on the edge of the network.
• Locations A, B, D, and E can support VPN connectivity. Location C requires an additional router on the edge of the network.
• All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
• AH
• L2TP
• ESP
• GRE
• PPTP
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
• ATM
• CHAP
• IPsec
• IPX
• MPLS
• PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
• a GRE tunnel
• a site-to-site VPN
• a remote-access VPN
• the user must be at the office location to establish a secure connection
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
• The devices must use a dedicated Layer 2 connection.
• The devices must have the VPN client software installed.
• The two parties must inspect the traffic against the same ACLs.
• The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
• The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
• The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
Labels: CCNA 4 - Chapter 6
1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
encryption
encapsulation
7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
AH
8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP
9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
DSL
10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity
11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
a WiMAX receiver
12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards
13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. Which statement describes cable?
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
IPsec
PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a remote-access VPN
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
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channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
encryption
encapsulation
7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
AH
8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP
9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
DSL
10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity
11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
a WiMAX receiver
12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards
13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. Which statement describes cable?
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
IPsec
PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a remote-access VPN
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
Labels: CCNA 4 - Chapter 6
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