CCNA Discovery 1 Module 6 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does www.cisco.com represent?
• the IP address of a web server
• a physical network address
• the closest router interface to the source
• the source IP address in the data transmission

2. What type of server would use IMAP?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web

3. Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate environment?
• DNS
• DHCP
• e-mail
• FTP
• Telnet
• web

4. Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
• TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP

5. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
• UDP
• FTP
• IP
• SMTP
• TCP

6. Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
• Application
• Physical
• Internet
• Network Access

• Presentation

7. You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?
• UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
• TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
• Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

8. Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?
• Uniform Resource Locator
• Network redirector server
• SNMP server
• DNS server

9. Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• HTTP
• POP
• SMTP

10. Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?
• IM
• FTP
• HTTP
• SNMP
• VoIP

11. Which port number is used by SMTP?
• 20
• 21
• 25
• 26
• 110

12. Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP

13. What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users in real time?
• blog
• e-mail
• web mail
• instant messaging

14. An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?
• The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
• The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
• The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
• The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

15. What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?
• protocol hierarchy
• protocol modeling
• protocol stack
• protocol layering

16. What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• error-checking information


17. What information is contained in an IP header?
• source and destination IP addresses
• source and destination MAC addresses
• only destination IP and MAC addresses
• both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

18. Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?
• 4
• 2
• 1
• 3

19. A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?
• removes the IP header
• removes the TCP header
• passes data to the application layer
• removes the Ethernet header and trailer

20. A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?
• 1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application
• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits
• 1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

• 1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

21. What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?
• It breaks network communications into larger parts.
• It increases complexity.
• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
• It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

22. What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?
• data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
• physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
• application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical
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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 5 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. How large are IPv4 addresses?
• 8 bits
• 16 bits
• 32 bits
• 64 bits
• 128 bits

2. Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
• The router interface does not have a default gateway.
• The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.
• The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
• The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

3. Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
• first two octets
• third and fourth octets
• network portion
• host portion
• only the fourth octet

4. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

5. Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
• 255.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.252

6. How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
• 4
• 8
• 16
• 24

7. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

8. Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
• 175.124
• 35.4
• .4
• 124.35.4
• 175.124.35

9. Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.16.4.4
• 192.168.5.5

• 224.6.6.6

10. What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
• a specific host
• a group of hosts
• the default gateway
• the network broadcast address

11. What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
• the MAC address of the sending host
• the MAC address of the destination host
• an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
• a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

12. Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
• broadcast
• simulcast
• multicast
• unicast

13. What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
• MAC and IP addresses for the default router
• IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway
• MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination group
MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

14. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
• The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
• The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
• The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
• The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

15. Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• RARP

16. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
• The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
• The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
• The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
• The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
• All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.

• Only the DHCP server receives the message.

17. Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP and the Internet?
• IP address of the destination host
• public gateway IP address of the ISP
• external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP
• internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network

18. Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
• ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers
• allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
• solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
• allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location

19. What is one of the purposes of NAT?
• filters network traffic based on IP address ranges
• prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
• inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network
• translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names

20. Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
• Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be translated.
• Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.

21. Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
• 10.0.0.17
• 128.107.1.2
• 192.135.250.0
• 209.165.201.1
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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which definition describes the term Internet?
• a group of PCs connected together on a LAN
• a group of PCs connected together by an ISP
• a network of networks that connects countries around the world
• a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

2. What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
• between a client and a host
• between two local networks
• between a computer and a switch
• between an ISP and a home-based LAN

3. What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
• Internet LAN
• ISP backbone
• Internet gateways
• Internet providers
• Internet backbone

4. Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
• hub
• bridge
• modem
• repeater
• ISR

5. What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
• fast connections
• extra web space

• free Windows upgrade
• cheapest cost available to all users
• additional e-mail accounts
• replacement hardware at no cost

6. What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
• Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.
• Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are different.
• Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

7. Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
• an IP address
• file sharing enabled
• a network connection
• server services enabled
• access to an Internet service provider
• an address obtained directly from the RIR

8. What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
• NOC
• ISP
• hop
• segment

9. What does the tracert command test?
• NIC functionality
• the ISP bandwidth
• the network path to a destination
• the destination application functionality

10. What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
• analog technology
• cable modem technology
• digital subscriber line technology
• wireless technology

11. Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
• to connect end users using cable technology
• to connect end users using analog technology
• to connect end users using wireless technology
• to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

12. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

13. Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
• STP
• UTP
• coax
• fiber

14. Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• between buildings
• in a home office network
• where EMI is an issue
• in a cable TV network
• inside a school building
• in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

15. What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
• data security
• no loss of signal
• no electromagnetic interference
• reliable data communications

16. Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
• crossover
• eight coax channels
• multimode fiber
• single-mode fiber
• straight-through

17. What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
• ST
• BNC
• RJ-11
• RJ-45

18. Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
• uses RJ-11 jacks
• uses RJ-45 jacks
• supports only data transmissions
• allows quick rearrangements of network connections
• forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

19. What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
• requires no preplanning
• aids in isolation of cabling problems
• protects cables from physical damage

• provides compliance with future standards
• provides a short-term solution for cable installation

20. What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
• installing cables in conduit
• having improper termination
• losing light over long distances
• installing low quality cable shielding
• using low quality cables or connectors

21. What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
• pinouts
• cable lengths

• connector color
• connector types
• cost per meter (foot)
• tensile strength of plastic insulator
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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?
• flow control
• encapsulation
• encoding
• multicasting
• access method

2. Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
• H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
• H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

3. Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)
• adds complexity to networks
• encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
• provides consistent interconnections across networks
• ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
• simplifies new product development

4. What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?
• type of cable used
• type of data transmission
• speed of transmission
• type of connector required
• maximum length of cable allowed

5. Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?
• source IP address
• source MAC address
• destination IP address
• destination MAC address
• source Ethernet address

6. Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?
• logical addresses only
• IP addresses only
• MAC addresses only
• broadcast addresses only

7. What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?
• detects transmission errors
• provides timing for transmission
• contains the start of frame delimiter
• indicates which protocol will receive the frame

8. What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?
• They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
• They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
• They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
• They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
• They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

9. Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?
• modem
• switch
• router
• hub

10. Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch

• server
• computer

11. Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?
• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• WINS

12. A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?
• It drops the frame.
• It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
• It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
• It returns the frame to the sender.

13. What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?
• prevents collisions on a local network
• keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
• controls which hosts have access to the network
• controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

14. Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?
• It sends the data packet as it was received.
• It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
• It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
• It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

15. Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?
• ARP table
• routing table
• network table
• forwarding table

16. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.

17. What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?
• a server hosted by the ISP
• the router interface closest to the computer
• a server managed by a central IT department
• the switch interface that connects to the computer

18. If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?
• dynamic route
• default route
• destination route
• default destination

19. Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)
• naming scheme
• IP addressing scheme

• length of cable runs
• physical location of networking devices
• specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

20. An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• switch
• e-mail server
• application server
• wireless access point

21. What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?
• It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
• It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
• It enables the user to share printers.
• It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?
• clean install
• upgrade
• multi-boot
• virtualization

2. Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)
• Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
• Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
• Complete a full backup of all important files and data.

• Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
• Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.

3. Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)
• closest server
• operating system
• IP address
• subnet mask
• default gateway

• network card driver

4. Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)
• partition
• file system
• computer name
• IP address

• operating system

5. Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?
• CLI
• GUI
• redirector
• kernel translator

6. What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
• full access to source code
• software often available free

• structured development cycle
• can be expensive to purchase
• limits what end-user can do with code
• support normally user-based and often free

7. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

8. Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)
• Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
• A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.

• User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
• A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
• Each partition requires a different file system type.

9. What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?
• Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
• A network administrator enters information on each computer.
• Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
• An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.

10. What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)
• CLI
• OS
• GUI
• NIC
• kernel

11. Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)
• required hard disk space
• type of accelerated graphics card
• recommended amount of RAM
• printer requirements
• processor type and speed
• type of keyboard
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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?
• RAM
• CPU
• video card
• sound card
• operating system

2. What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two.)
• usually a lower cost
• exact components may be specified
• extended waiting period for assembly
• adequate for performing most general applications
• suited for customers with special needs

3. A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer component is essential to accomplish this?
• RAM
• NIC
• video card
• sound card
• storage device

4. Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other systems on a local network?
• modem card
• controller card
• video card
• sound card
• network interface card

5. What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops?
• tape drive
• hard drive
• optical drive (DVD)
• floppy disk drive

6. Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line so that they do not damage a computer system?
• CPU
• surge suppressor
• motherboard
• hard drive

7. What are two examples of output peripheral devices? (Choose two.)
• printer
• speakers

• flash drive
• external DVD
• external modem

8. What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)
• protects the computer from voltage surges
• provides backup power from an internal battery
• protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes
• gives the user time to phone the electrical company
• gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails
• provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

9. What is a word processor?
• It is a physical computer component.
• It is a program designed to perform a specific function.
• It is a program that controls the computer resources.
• It is a functional part of an operating system.

10. What is the purpose of the ASCII code?
• translates bits into bytes
• interprets graphics digitally
• translates digital computer language into binary language
• represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits

11. Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?
• Servers require more power and thus require more components.
• Servers should be accessible at all times.
• Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
• Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

12. What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station? (Choose two.)
• Mobility is increased.
• An external monitor can be used.
• Alternate connectivity options may be available.

• The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.
• More wireless security options are available.

13. Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)
• CAD
• presentation
• spreadsheet
• word processing
• medical practice management
• contacts/scheduling management

14. Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)
• operating system
• network
• laptop
• desktop

• Windows
• mainframe

15. How is a server different from a workstation computer?
• The server works as a standalone computer.
• The server provides services to clients.
• The workstation has fewer applications installed.
• The workstation has more users who attach to it.

16. How many values are possible using a single binary digit?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 8
• 9
• 16

17. What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?
• bits
• pixels
• hertz
• bytes

18. What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?
• dry and non humid conditions
• carpeted floor
• grounding strap
• uncluttered work space

19. If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)
• Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
• Verify that all cables are connected properly.

• Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
• Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
• Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
• Reload the computer operating system.

20. Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)
• Download and install the most current driver.
• Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
• Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
• Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
• Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

21. In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?
• manually assigned by the operating system
• manually assigned by the administrator
• statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
• dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

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1. Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
• A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP.
• A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.

• The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
• Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.

2 . What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
• project scope summary
• high-level implementation plan
• quotes for all needed equipment
• technical requirements for the design
• emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer

3. Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
• logical design
• physical design
• executive summary
• implementation plan
• network requirements

4. Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
• The incorrect model switches were ordered.
• There is no customer signoff for task completion.
• New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
• The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.

5. A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
• a new installation
• a fork-lift installation
• a phased installation
• a green field installation

6. What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?
• software application maintenance
• replacement of defected hardware
• next business day delivery of replacement parts
• access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week

7. An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
• a hardware warranty
• a software warranty
• the Cisco SMARTnet Service
• an additional service contract

8. A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
• Cancel the order for the new edge router.
• Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
• Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
• Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the
• project completion date.


9. NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager?(Choose two.)
• the project scope
• the bill-of-material
• the project timeline
• the terms and conditions
• the business goals of the customer
• the evaluation of the current network

10. The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?
• the preparation of the business case
• the prioritizing of the technical goals
• the characterization of the existing network
• the implementation of the approved design

11.The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)
• plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered
• eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed
• renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay
• delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time
• redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software

12. AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled
• Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.
• Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.
• Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working
correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there re problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.
• Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This ill allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working orrectly with the old software.

13. ncluded in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
• DNS server
• LAN switch
• wireless NICs
• DHCP server
• wireless access points

14. A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)
• signature file updates
• technical support from TAC
• maintenance releases for OS

• software application major releases
• software application maintenance and minor releases

15. A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)
• access to TAC
• replacement of defective physical media
• advanced replacement of hardware parts
• access to a renewable standard warranty contract
• under normal use, replacement of defective hardware


16. Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)
• customers
• licensing boards
• cabling contractors
• internal management
• project implementation team

17. What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)
• Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
• Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
• Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.
• Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
• Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.


18. In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a
• networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
• cost summary
• installation steps
• change order procedures
• problem resolution process

• maintenance contract quotation

19. Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)
• references to design documents
• the business goals of the customer
• diagrams of the existing traffic flows
• the steps to install and test the network
• cost of each network device and component

20. Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
• A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
• A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
• A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.
• A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.
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