CCNA Discovery 2 Module 4 Exam Answers V4.0

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?
• 128
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 512
• 1024

2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
• 11100111
• 11100101
• 11101110

3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT?
• Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.
• A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.
• Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.
• Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for communications.

5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
• It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.
• The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
• Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
• Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
• Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.
• Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62

9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255

10.
1
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?
• 64
• 96
• 128
• 192
• 256
• 512

12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?
• 127 to 191
• 127 to 192
• 128 to 191
• 128 to 192

13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

14.
2
refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks?
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96
• 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127
• 192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

15. Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address?
• 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13
• 2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13
• 2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13
• 2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.)
• to preserve registered public IP addresses
• to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks
• to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet
• to make routing protocols operate more efficiently
• to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet
• to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers

17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet?
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.
• The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses?
• 255 and below
• 1024 and below
• 1025 and above
• 64,000 and above

19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific address type?
• inside global
• outside local
• outside global
• private IP address

20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)
• improved security
• improved router performance
• decreased processor load
• improved scalability
• universal application compatibility
• sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

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CCNA Discovery 2 Module 3 Exam Answers V4.0

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.)
• faster communication speeds
• improved physical security
• more resistant to hacker attempts
• centralized cable management
• less electrical usage

2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician's site survey report? (Choose three.)
• unlabeled cables
• only two power outlets per wall in each room
• poor physical security of network devices
• horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters
• lack of UPS for critical devices
• two users sharing the same computer

3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.)
• serial cable
• rollover cable
• straight-through cable
• crossover cable
• patch cable
• console cable

4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing the site survey?
• any obsolete office equipment being stored
• all product keys for site license software
• any planned growth anticipated in the near future
• the memory requirements for installed application software

5.
1
Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks?
• hub
• router
• switch
• access point

6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is "five-9s". What is meant by this?
• A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.
• A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.
• Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.
• The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.
• The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.

7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.)
• the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals
• the path that the data takes through a network
• the wireless signal coverage area
• the wiring closet and access point locations
• the device names and Layer 3 addressing information
• the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering


8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains?
• repeater
• hub
• router
• switch

9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer before beginning the network design?
• to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take
• to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment
• to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion
• to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements

10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement?
• a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated
• a networking device with a modular physical configuration
• a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely
• a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible

11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?
• scalability
• manageability
• compatibility
• reliability

12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router?
• An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.
• ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and management.
• An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security measures.
• ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network than do other routers.

13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)
• user workstations
• switches and routers
• fax machines
• network equipment racks
• the point of presence

• copier

14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.)
• does not require leasing costs for service
• can guarantee up to 99.999% availability
• eliminates the need for data backup
• increases availability of help desk services
• does not require a Service Level Agreement

15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)
• Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.
• Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.
• Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.
• Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.
• Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.

16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician perform? (Choose two.)
• configure the servers and routers prior to delivery
• upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems
• investigate and document the physical layout of the premises
• document the final design for approval by the customer
• perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider?
• backbone area
• point of presence
• network distribution facility
• intermediate distribution frame

18.
2
to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device?
• A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight
• A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
• A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight

19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)
• Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.
• The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.
• Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.
• Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete the upgrade.
• The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment upfront.

20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• fiber optic

21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current telecommunications room?
• MDF
• POP
• IDF
• IXP
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CCNA Discovery 2 Module 2 Exam Answers V4.0

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission
• initiating the network communication process
• encrypting and compressing data for transmission

• segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination
• choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network

2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model?
• routes data between networks
• converts data to bits for transmission
• delivers data reliably across the network using TCP
• formats and encodes data for transmission
• transmits data to the next directly connected device

3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?
• incorrect subnet mask
• incorrect default gateway
• loose network cable
• NIC improperly installed

4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at Layer 3? (Choose three.)
• ping
• a packet sniffer
• Telnet
• ipconfig
• Traceroute


5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks?
• source MAC address
• destination MAC address
• source IP address
• destination IP address

6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• bits, frames, packets, segments
• frames, bits, packets, segments
• packets, frames, segments, bits
• segments, packets, frames, bits

7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)
• conserving support resources
• network optimization
• competitive scalability
• customer retention
• sales of network services

8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a customer's problems? (Choose three.)
• talking to the customer on the telephone
• upgrading hardware and software
• using various web tools
• making an onsite visit
• installing new equipment
• with remote desktop sharing applications

9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)
• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• What is the IP address and subnet mask?
• Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?
• Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?
• Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?

• Can you access your e-mail account?

10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the technician ask the customer first?
• Can you access other web sites?
• Is there a firewall installed on your computer?
• What is your IP address?
• Is the link light lit on your NIC card?

11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket?
• The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble ticket.
• Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the trouble ticket.
• After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to the onsite support staff.
• When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.

12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• adding the hardware address
• converting data to bits
• encapsulating data into frames
• signal generation
• routing packets

13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer? (Choose three.)
• What is your subnet mask?
• What is your IP address?

• Is the NIC link light blinking?
• Can you ping the default gateway?
• Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?
• Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?

14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model?
• An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.
• A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.
• A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.
• An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.

15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.)
• opening a trouble ticket
• using diagnostic tools to identify the problem
• surveying network conditions for further analysis
• configuring new equipment and software upgrades
• adhering to a problem-solving strategy
• e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer

16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?
• Level 1
• Level 2
• Level 3
• Level 4

17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to helping a customer solve a problem?
• identify and prioritize alternative solutions
• isolate the cause of the problem
• define the problem
• select an evaluation process

18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model. Which question would provide further information about the problem?
• Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?
• Do you have a link light on your network card?
• Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?
• What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?
• Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?

19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer's problem?
• improper IP address configuration on the host
• hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP
• bad cables or connections at the customer site
• failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses

20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers?
• application, presentation, session
• application, session, network
• presentation, transport, network
• presentation, network, data link
• session, transport, network
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CCNA Discovery 2 Module 1 Exam Answers V4.0

CCNA Discovery 2 Module 1 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
• the number of routers between the source and destination device
• the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
• the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
• whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network

• the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
• DSL
• cable modem
• Ethernet
• metro Ethernet
• T1
• T3


3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed?
• 56 kbps
• 128 kbps
• 1.544 Mbps
• 2.4 Mbps

4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
• echo request issued by source
• echo reply issued by source
• echo request issued by destination
• echo reply issued by destination

5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP?
• peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone
• uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone
• pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents
• limits the offered services to small geographic areas

6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network to obtain Internet access?
• at a POP
• at an IXP
• at a Metro Ethernet link
• on the ISP extranet

7. What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF?
• the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail
• the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet
• the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network
• the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks

8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link?"
• customer service
• help desk
• network operations
• on-site installation

9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing network hardware and circuits installed?
• customer service
• help desk
• network operations
• planning and provisioning

10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account information?
• help desk
• customer service
• network operations center
• on-site installation team
• planning and provisioning

11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable?
• a fixed number of interfaces
• ease of repair
• modularity
• low maintenance requirements
• low cost

12. Which command generated this output?
• 1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec
• 2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec
• 3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec
• Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4
• Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4
• Router# ping 34.0.0.4
• Router# telnet 34.0.0.4

13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies routers that packets travel across?
• ping
• ipconfig
• traceroute
• ixp

14. What interconnects the Internet backbone?
• gateway routers
• IXPs
• POPs
• satellite dishes

15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?
• bits per second
• bytes per second
• hertz
• megabytes per second
• packets per second

16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need?
• web hosting
• planning and provisioning
• application hosting
• equipment colocation
• Tier 1 ISP services

17. What is the purpose of an RFC?
• to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet
• to document the development and approval of an Internet standard
• to connect a business to an ISP
• to provide data communication services to ISP customers
• to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients

18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers?
• 1979
• 1984
• 1991
• 1999
• 2000

19. What was the original purpose of the Internet?
• voice communication
• marketing
• research
• commerce

20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.)
• help desk
• computer support
• application readiness
• network operations center
• planning and provisioning

• implementation and documentation
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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 9 Exam Answers V4.0

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 9 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. What should a network administrator do first after receiving a call from a user who cannot access the company web server?
• Reboot the web server.
• Replace the NIC of the computer.
• Ask the user to log off and log on again.
• Ask the user what URL has been typed and what error message displays.

2. A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable. After trying several configuration changes, the technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What troubleshooting technique does this represent?
• top-down
• bottom-up
• substitution
• trial-and-error
• divide-and-conquer

3. Only one workstation on a particular network cannot reach the Internet. What is the first troubleshooting step if the divide-and-conquer method is being used?
• Check the NIC, and then check the cabling.
• Check the workstation TCP/IP configuration.
• Test all cables, and then test layer by layer up the OSI model.
• Attempt to Telnet, and then test layer by layer down the OSI model.

4. Which two troubleshooting techniques are suitable for both home networks and large corporate networks? (Choose two.)
• having a backup ISR
• running network monitoring applications
• documenting the troubleshooting process
• keeping a record of system upgrades and software versions

• keeping spare switches, routers, and other equipment available

5. Identify two physical-layer network problems. (Choose two.)
• hardware failure
• software configuration
• devices not able to ping
• loose cable connections
• device driver configuration

6. Which ipconfig command requests IP configuration from a DHCP server?
• ipconfig
• ipconfig /all
• ipconfig /renew
• ipconfig /release

7. What command is used to determine the location of delay for a packet traversing the Internet?
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup
• ping
• tracert

8. What command is used to determine if a DNS server is providing name resolution?
• ipconfig
• netstat
• nslookup
• tracert

9. Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?
• top-down
• bottom-up
• substitution
• divide-and-conquer

10. A technician suspects that a Linksys integrated router is the source of a network problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a blinking green activity LED on some of the ports. What does this indicate?
• Self-diagnostics have not completed.
• The power supply is the source of the problem.
• The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.
• The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.
• There are no cables plugged into those ISR ports.
• The ports have cables plugged in, but they are not functional.

11. A PC is plugged into a switch and is unable to connect to the network. The UTP cable is suspected. What could be the problem?
• A straight-through cable is being used
• The connectors at both ends of the cable are RJ-45.
• The RJ-45 connectors are crimped onto the cable jacket.
• A crossover cable is being used.

12. Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
• The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

13. Which three settings must match on the client and access point for a wireless connection to occur? (Choose three.)
• SSID
• authentication
• MD5 checksum
• antennae type
• encryption key
• MAC address filters

14. A technician is troubleshooting a security breach on a new wireless access point. Which three configuration settings make it easy for hackers to gain access? (Choose three.)
• configuring NAT
• broadcasting the SSID
• using open authentication
• enabling MAC address filters
• using the default internal IP address
• using DHCP to provide IP addresses

15. Refer to the graphic. The wireless host cannot access the Internet, but the wired host can. What is the problem?
• The host WEP key is incorrect.
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The integrated router internal IP address is incorrect.
• The integrated router Internet IP address is incorrect.

16. Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?
• The host IP address is incorrect.
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host default gateway is incorrect.
• The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
• The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

17. When acting as a DHCP server, what three types of information can an ISR provide to a client? (Choose three.)
• physical address
• MAC address
• default gateway
• static IP address
• dynamic IP address
• DNS server address


18. What two items could be checked to verify connectivity between the router and the ISP? (Choose two.)
• router status page
• wireless card settings
• router operating system version
• local host operating system version
• connectivity status as indicated by LEDs

19. A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session between a PC and a Linksys integrated router. Both devices have power, and a cable is connected between them. Which two troubleshooting steps could help to diagnose this problem? (Choose two.)
• Ensure the correct cable is used.
• Ensure the SSID is the same on both devices.
• Ensure both devices have the same IP address.
• Ensure both devices have different subnet masks.
• Ensure the encryption type on both devices match.
• Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit.

20. Network baselines should be performed in which two situations? (Choose two.)
• after the network is installed and running optimally
• after a virus outbreak is discovered on the network
• after major changes are implemented on the network
• after several computers are added to the network
• at the end of the work week

21. Typically, help desk personnel assist end users in which two tasks? (Choose two.)
• identifying when the problem occurred
• determining if other users are currently logged into the computer
• updating network diagrams and documentation
• implementing the solution to the problem
• running a network baseline test
• determining the cost of fixing the problem

22. How does remote-access software help in the troubleshooting process?
• Remote access uses a live chat feature.
• Users have to be present so that they can view LEDs and change cables if necessary.
• Diagnostics can be run without a technician being present at the site.
• FAQs can be consulted more easily.

23. Which two items should be added to the documentation following a troubleshooting event? (Choose two.)
• final resolution
• repetitive measures
• number of people involved in the problem
• accurate current network infrastructure diagrams
• results of successful and unsuccessful troubleshooting steps

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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 8 Exam Answers V4.0

CCNA Discovery 1 Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0
1. Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)
• fishing
• vishing
• phishing

• spamming
• pretexting
• junk mailing

2. During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?
• by e-mail
• by phone
• in person
• through another person

3. While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?
• worm
• virus
• Trojan horse
• denial of service

4. What is a major characteristic of a Worm?
• malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
• tricks users into running the infected software
• a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
• exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5. A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?
• Trojan horse
• brute force
• ping of death
• SYN flooding

6. What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?
• adware
• popups
• spyware
• tracking cookies

7. What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?
• brute force
• spam
• spyware
• tracking cookies

8. What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?
• identification and authentication
• remote access
• acceptable use
• incident handling

9. Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?
• Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
• Only hard drives can be protected.
• Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
• Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.

10. Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)
• Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
• When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
• Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
• Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
• Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.

11. What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?
• server-based
• integrated
• personal
• appliance-based

12. Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?
• SPI
• DMZ
• ISR
• ISP

13. Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
• Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.

14. To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?
• DMZ
• external
• internal
• a network other than the wired network

15. Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT (Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?
• to require a user ID and password to access the router
• to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet
• to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router
• to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices

16. What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?
• A DMZ is not supported.
• The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
• The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
• Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.

17. What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?
• a large corporate environment
• a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
• a home environment that needs VPN access
• a smaller, less congested business environment

18. What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?
• It provides various views of possible attack paths.
• It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
• It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
• It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
• It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.

19. Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.
• Periodically update anti-virus software.
• Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
• Periodically update the host operating system.
• Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
• Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
• Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.

20. What best practice relates to wireless access point security?
• activation of a popup stopper
• a change of the default IP address
• an update in the antivirus software definitions
• physically securing the cable between the access point and client

21. Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?
• It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
• It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
• It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
• It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
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CCNA Discovery 1 Module 7 Exam Answers V4.0

1. Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?
• transmits at much lower frequencies
• has higher power output
• transmits at much higher frequencies
• uses better encryption methods

2. What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)
• more secure
• longer range
• anytime, anywhere connectivity
• easy and inexpensive to install

• ease of using licensed air space
• ease of adding additional devices

3. What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)
• speed
• security
• mobility
• reduced installation time

• allows users to share more resources
• not susceptible to interference from other devices

4. A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)
• the size of the building
• the number of solid interior walls in the building
• the presence of microwave ovens in several offices

• the encryption method used on the wireless network
• the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
• the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

5. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
• Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
• Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
• Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
• Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

6. What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?
• IEEE has approved the device.
• The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
• The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
• The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

7. Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?
• connects two networks with a wireless link
• stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
• allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
• increases the strength of a wireless signal

8. Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?
• cell
• antenna
• access point
• wireless bridge
• wireless client

9. Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?
• created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
• created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
• created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
• created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

10. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?
• The router supports encryption and authentication.
• The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
• The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
• The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

11. Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?
• Network Mode
• Network Name (SSID)
• Radio Band
• Wide Channel
• Standard Channel
• SSID Broadcast

12. Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
• tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
• consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
• responsible for determining the signal strength
• all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
• used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

13. Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
• Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
• Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
• With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
• Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.

• An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

14. What type of authentication does an access point use by default?
• Open
• PSK
• WEP
• EAP

15. Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?
• requires no authentication
• uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
• requires the use of an authentication server
• requires a mutually agreed upon password

16. What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)
• WEP
• WPA
• EAP
• ASCII
• pre-shared keys

17. What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?
• Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
• Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
• Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
• Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

18. What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?
• address filtering
• authentication
• broadcasting
• encryption
• passphrase encoding

19. What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?
• encryption
• hacking block
• traffic filtering
• MAC address filtering
• authentication

20. What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)
• 8 bit
• 16 bit
• 32 bit
• 64 bit
• 128 bit


21. Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.
• encrypt; authenticate users on
• filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
• identify the wireless network; compress data on
• create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on
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