Cisco Exploration CCNA - All Version - Free All

1.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?


0040.8596.DE82


**0060.7320.B826



060.7320.D632


0010.4F74.AC09


0040.8596.DE81


2.

Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?

hub
switch
**router
wireless access point


3.
Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
**IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35


4. Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
0 to 255
**49152 to 65535
1024 to 49151
0 to 1023


5.

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA


6. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)
**The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
**The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.


7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
**Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
**Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.


8.
Refer to exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server used by the host?

**10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100


9. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128


10. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
**172.16.0.1
**192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1


11.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
**Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81


12. Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
RAM
ROM
flash
**NVRAM


13. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
**It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
**It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.
14. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
10.0.0.1
172.16.1.1
**209.165.201.1
192.168.1.1


15.
Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
10.1.192.2
10.1.192.54
**10.1.192.1
192.31.7.1


16. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
**rollover cable
serial cable


17. A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
**enable
aux
console
VTY


18. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
**Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
**All devices on the media can hear all communications.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
After a collision occurs, the devices that caused the collision have first priority when attempting to retransmit.
**When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.
CSMA/CD uses a token system to avoid collisions.


19. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
**The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.


20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway addresses are network addresses.


21. Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
**This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
**The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
**The assigned address is a private address.


22. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)
10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
**1000 BASE-TX
**1000 BASE-SX


23. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly.
The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
Use the description command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
**Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.


24. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)
172.16.11.36
172.16.11.95
**172.16.11.88
**172.16.11.70
172.16.11.64
**172.16.11.67


25. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
10.10.1.2:53
0007.A7B8.0008:25
10.10.1.3:23
**10.10.1.3:25


26. A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ROM
**NVRAM
RAM
flash


27. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)
Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
**Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully
**Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2


28. How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
**It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.


29. What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
port number
device physical address
**destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier


30. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
switch A, switch D, switch G, host Y
**router B, router E, router F, host Y
switch A, router B, switch D, router E, router F, switch G, host Y
switch A, router B, router F, switch G, host Y


31. While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
**Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#


32. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
**Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240


33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
**ring
point-to-point
multi-access

34. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?
3
**5
7
9
11


35. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
192.168.9.64/28
**192.168.9.146/28
192.168.9.96/28
**192.168.9.129/26
**192.168.9.51/26
192.168.9.64/26


36. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
**The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.


37. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
**router
host


38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)
**The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
**The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.


39. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer


40. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
**The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
**The TCP transport layer protocol provides services to direct the data packets to their destination hosts.
The UDP transport layer protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
The UDP transport layer protocol keeps track of all the data segments in each conversation.


41. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:
Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
**Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
**The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.


42. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
**Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable


43. Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown.
Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**transport layer


44. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uses the last octet of the IP address to identify the network.
**It supports data communications between networks.
**It is configured by the network technician.
It is a 16-bit IPv4 address.
It prevents broadcasts.
**It uniquely identifies each host.


45. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.
Use the ipconfig command.
Use the ipconfig/all command.
**Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.


46. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
**It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.


47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
**The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.


48. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer


49. Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
**It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0


50. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)
**segment 1
segment 2
segment 3
**segment 4
**segment 5
segment 6

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch
5.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport
6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)
• determine pathways for data
• initiate data communications
• retime and retransmit data signals
• originate the flow of data
• manage data flows
• final termination point for data flow

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
• the destination device on the local media
• the path to use to reach the destination host
• the bits that will be transferred over the media
• the source application or process creating the data
8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?
• physical, network, application, data link, presentation, session, transport
• application, physical, session, transport, network, data link, presentation
• application, presentation, physical, session, data link, transport, network
• application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
• presentation, data link, session, transport, network, physical, application
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Network A -- WAN
• Network B -- WAN
• Network C -- LAN
• Network B -- MAN
• Network C -- WAN
• Network A -- LAN
10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.)
• allows modification of the original data before transmission
• identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication
• enables consistent network paths for communication
• ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
• enables the reassembly of complete messages
• tracks delay between end devices
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?
• piping
• PDU
• streaming
• multiplexing
• encapsulation
12. What is a PDU?
• corruption of a frame during transmission
• data reassembled at the destination
• retransmitted packets due to lost communication
• a layer specific encapsulation
13. Refer to the exhibit. "Cell A" at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with "IP Phone 1" at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device "Cell A?"
• the destination device
• an end device
• an intermediate device
• a media device
14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?
• A, C, D
• B, E, G, H
• C, D, G, H, I, J
• D, E, F, H, I, J
• E, F, H, I, J
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?
• source
• end
• transfer
• intermediary
16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)
• A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
• The network is administered by a single organization.
• The connection between segments in the LAN is usually through a leased connection.
• The security and access control of the network are controlled by a service provider.
• A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
• Each end of the network is generally connected to a Telecommunication Service Provider (TSP).
17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?
• WAN
• MAN
• LAN
• WLAN
18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?
• path determination and packet switching
• data representation, encoding, and control
• reliability, flow control, and error detection
• detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it
• the division of segments into packets
19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?
• manage data flows
• originate data flow
• retime and retransmit data signals
• determine pathways for data
20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?
• to identify devices on the local media
• to identify the hops between source and destination
• to identify to the intermediary devices the best path through the network
• to identify the source and destination end devices that are communicating
• to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices
21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)
• define the structure of layer specific PDU's
• dictate how to accomplish layer functions
• outline the functions necessary for communications between layers
• limit hardware compatibility
• require layer dependent encapsulations
• eliminate standardization among vendors

2.
Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>192.168.9.64/28

192.168.9.146/28

(true answer)=>192.168.9.96/28

192.168.9.129/26

192.168.9.51/26

(true answer)=>192.168.9.64/26


http://ccna-free.blogspot.com
3

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)

(true answer)=>Four collision domains are present.

One logical network is represented.

(true answer)=>Two broadcast domains are present.

Three networks are needed.

Three logical address ranges are required.




4



Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?

star

(true answer)=>ring

point-to-point

multi-access



5


Refer to the exhibit. At which OSI layer is serial interface 0/0/1 experiencing problems?

(true answer)=>Layer 1

Layer 2

Layer 3

Layer 4



6


Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)

This is a server response.

The UDP protocol is being used.

(true answer)=>The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

(true answer)=>The return segment will contain a source port of 23.

The next session originated from the client of this session will use the source port number 13358.



7


Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?

The table will remain unaffected.

(true answer)=>The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19.

The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.

The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.



8
What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?

(true answer)=>port number

device physical address

destination host logical address

virtual connection identifier



9


Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the provided configuration, which statement is true?

(true answer)=>The IP address of host A is properly assigned to the local NIC.

Host A can send packets to any host on the local network only.

Host A can send packets to any host on the local and remote network.

Host A can ping successfully the default gateway address of 192.168.1.1.



10
As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

255.255.0.0

255.255.248.0

255.255.252.0

(true answer)=>255.255.254.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.128



11


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?

The Telnet server process is running on PC1.

Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.

The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.

(true answer)=>The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.



12
A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?

(true answer)=>enable

aux

console

VTY



13


Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the purpose for the IP address that is assigned to VLAN 100?

provides remote switch management

(true answer)=>identifies the subnet for hosts in VLAN 100

serves as default gateway to hosts in VLAN 100

creates a routing table entry for packets to network 192.168.0.0



14
Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

10 Base-T

10 Base-2

10 Base-5

(true answer)=>100 Base-FX

100 Base TX

(true answer)=>1000 Base LX



15
Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?

access switch

DHCP server

hub

(true answer)=>router


16


Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?

It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.

(true answer)=>It provides out-of-band console access.

It terminates at the serial interface of the router.

It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.



17
Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>172.16.4.63 /26

172.16.4.129 /26

(true answer)=>172.16.4.191 /26

172.16.4.51 /27

(true answer)=>172.16.4.95 /27

172.16.4.221 /27



18


Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

Host A was assigned a network address.

Host B was assigned a multicast address.

Host A and Host B belong to different networks.

(true answer)=>The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.



19
Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password arj15
Router(config-line)# login

This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.

Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.

(true answer)=>This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.

(true answer)=>This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
www.true answer


The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.


20


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about e-mail transmission between computer A and the server?

(true answer)=>The server will use HTTP to push messages to computer A.

Computer A will connect to the server and retrieve inbound messages by using POP.

The e-mail client on computer A uses SMTP to pull inbound messages from the server and push outbound messages to the server.

A connection is established from computer A to the server on port 21 and the client software uses FTP to transmit messages as discreet files.



21
Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?

application layer

presentation layer

session layer

(true answer)=>transport layer



22


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?

console

Ethernet

(true answer)=>auxiliary

serial



23
In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

Flash

(true answer)=>NVRAM

RAM

ROM



24
Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

(true answer)=>It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

It is stored in NVRAM.

It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

It is automatically saved when the router reboots.



25


Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

00-08-a3-b6-ce-46

(true answer)=>198.133.219.25:80

http://www.cisco.com

C 198.133.219.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0



26
A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?

It uses error control mechanisms.

(true answer)=>It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.

It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.

It uses multiple port numbers.



27


Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.

(true answer)=>It will forward the packet to the next hop address.

It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0



28


Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

(true answer)=>IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6

IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35



29
A user types the enable command. What task can be performed at the privileged EXEC mode?

Configure the device.

Configure individual interfaces.

Configure individual terminal lines.

(true answer)=>Issue show and debug commands.



30
What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.

(true answer)=>After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.

(true answer)=>A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.

Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.

Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.

It uses a token system to avoid collisions.


31
Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.

UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

(true answer)=>TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.



32


Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown. Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?

physical layer

data link layer

network layer

(true answer)=>transport layer



33


Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)

Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.

(true answer)=>Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11.

The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully.

(true answer)=>Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B.

Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2.



34
During the encapsulation process of the TCP/IP model, which layer will attach the IP header to the data?

application

transport

(true answer)=>internet

network access



35


Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

(true answer)=>issue the clock rate command on interface Serial 0/0/0

issue the description command on interface Serial 0/0/1

issue the ip address command on interface FastEthernet 0/0

issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1



36
During the encapsulation process, what identifiers are added at the transport layer?

source and destination IP addresses

source and destination MAC addresses

source and destination port numbers

source and destination channel identifiers



37


Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?

straight-through cable

crossover cable

(true answer)=>rollover cable

serial cable



38
How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?

It uses error control mechanisms.

(true answer)=>It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.

It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.

It uses multiple ports.



39
While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?

Router>

Router#

(true answer)=>Router(config)#

Router(config-line)#



40


Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?

192.168.1.191

192.168.1.101

192.168.1.1

(true answer)=>192.168.1.254



41
Which option would be a valid router hostname according to Cisco naming convention guidelines?

Rtr1_Bldg201

(true answer)=>Building_201

Router 1

1st_Floor_Router_409_West_State_Street


http://ccna-free.blogspot.com
42
An administrator has made changes to a device. The changes did not have the desired effect. What can the administrator do to restore the configuration saved in NVRAM?

Issue the erase flash command.

(true answer)=>Issue the reload command and respond no to the prompt that follows.

Issue the erase start-up config command.

Issue the copy running-config start-up config command.



43


Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable

(true answer)=>Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable



44


Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?

Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2

(true answer)=>Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1

Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130



45


Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

(true answer)=>segment1

segment2

(true answer)=>segment3

(true answer)=>segment4

segment5


46


Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?

star

(true answer)=>ring

point-to-point

multi-access



47


Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?

PC

switch

(true answer)=>router interface fa0/0

router interface fa0/1



48


Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)

The source port indicates that the session is an http session.

The connection is not successful.

(true answer)=>The source port of the host is 3166.

(true answer)=>The destination port is 80.

The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.

The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.



49
The network administrator wants to configure the port number used by an application on a server to make it accessible by clients. Which range of port numbers would normally be assigned for this application?

0 to 255

(true answer)=>0 to 1023

1024 to 49151

49152 to 65535



50


Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)

The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.

(true answer)=>This PC cannot communicate with other networks.

(true answer)=>The network can have 14 hosts.

The prefix of the computer address is /25.

The IP address is routable on the Internet.

The assigned address is a private address.



51


Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?

an FTP client

a Telnet client

(true answer)=>a terminal emulation program

a web browser

CCNA VOICE Official Exam Certification Guide



By : Jeremy Cioara, Michael J. Cavanaugh, Kris A. Krake.
Published by Cisco Press.
Series: Exam Certification Guide.

ISBN-10: 1-58720-207-7;
Published: Nov 7, 2008;
Copyright 2009;
Dimensions 7-3/8 X 9-1/8;
Pages: 576;
Edition: 1st.
CCNA VoICE Certification
The Cisco® CCNA Voice certification confirms that you have the required skill set for specialized job roles in voice technologies such as voice technologies administrator, voice engineer, and voice manager. It validates skills in VoIP technologies such as IP PBX, IP telephony, handset, call control, and voicemail solutions. Candidates also get exposure to the Cisco Unified Communications architecture and design covering mobility, presence, and TelePresence applications.

The CCNA Voice Certification enables employers to validate that their staff possess a strong foundation in voice applications and infrastructure concepts; and are capable of performing baseline installation, operating, and maintenance tasks on Cisco VoIP solutions, particularly the Smart Business Communications System from 8-250 lines.

CCNA Voice Official Exam Certification Guide is a best of breed Cisco exam study guide that focuses specifically on the objectives for the CCNA Voice IIUC 640-460 exam. Senior voice instructors and network engineers Jeremy Cioara, Michael Cavanaugh, and Kris Krake share preparation hints and test-taking tips, helping you identify areas of weakness and improve both your conceptual knowledge and hands-on skills. Material is presented in a concise manner, focusing on increasing your understanding and retention of exam topics.


The official study guide helps you master all the topics on the IIUC exam, including
-Connecting IP phones to the LAN infrastructure
-Cisco Unified CME installation
-Cisco Unified CME IP phone configuration
-Cisco Unified CME voice productivity features
-Gateway and trunk concepts and configuration
-Cisco Unity Express concepts and configuration
-Smart Business Communications System
-Configuring and maintaining the UC500 for voice

http://rapidshare.com/files/166394389/CCNA_Voice.rar

Download CCNA 1 v4.0 Test Module
http://www.4shared.com/file/72779132/da6c61bf/CCNA1.html

Download CCNA 2 v4.0 Test Module
http://www.4shared.com/file/72779134/330fc48a/CCNA2.html

Download CCNA 3 v4.0 Test Module
http://www.4shared.com/file/72779133/ad6b5129/CCNA3.html

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
- 0060.7320.D632
- 0060.7320.D631
- 0040.8517.44C3
- 0009.B2E4.EE03
- 0010.C2B4.3421




2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
- It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
- After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
- A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
- Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
- Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
- It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
- PC
- switch
- router interface fa 0/0
- router interface fa 0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
- Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
- Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
- Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
- Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
- The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
- Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
- Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
- Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
- The interface is configured as a DCE device.
- The interface timers are cleared.
- The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
- The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
- 127.0.0.1
- 196.1.105.6
- 132.11.9.99
- 10.0.0.1
- 172.16.9.10
- 46.1.1.97

8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
- TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
- TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
- TCP acknowledges received data.
- UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
- TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
- UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
- star
- ring
- point-to-point
- multi-access

10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
- It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
- It is stored in NVRAM.
- It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
- It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
- Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
- The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
- The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
- The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
- It uses error control mechanisms.
- It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
- It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
- It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
- 10.0.0.254
- 192.168.0.249
- 192.168.0.250
- 10.0.1.254

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
- Segment 1
- Segment 2
- Segment 3
- Segment 4
- Segment 5
- Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
- Three networks are needed.
- Two logical address ranges are required.
- A single broadcast domain is present.
- Three collision domains are present.
- Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
- The assigned address is a private address.
- The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
- The network can have 126 hosts.
- The prefix of the computer address is /26.
- The IP address is routable on the Internet.
- The IP address is a multicast address.

17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
- enable
- enable secret
- console
- VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
- It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
- It provides out-of-band console access.
- It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
- It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.

19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
- access switch
- DHCP server
- hub
- router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
- Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
- Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
- Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
- Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
- The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
- The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
- Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
- Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
- No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
- console
- Ethernet
- auxiliary
- serial

23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
- application layer
- presentation layer
- session layer
- transport layer

24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
- It segments and reorders the data.
- It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
- It controls how data is placed onto the media.
- It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
- It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
- D,E,F,G
- A,H,B,C
- A,D,E,F
- A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
- 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
- The table will remain unaffected.
- The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa 0/19 immediately.
- The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
- The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
- The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
- The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
- The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
- The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
- The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
- 10.1.1.63
- 10.1.1.37
- 10.1.1.39
- 10.1.1.32
- 10.1.1.60
- 10.1.1.2

30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
- Use the ipconfig command at the host.
- Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
- Use the tracert command at the host.
- Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.248.0
- 255.255.252.0
- 255.255.254.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
- IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
- IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
- 192.168.1.99
- 192.168.2.100
- 10.10.10.32
- 192.168.1.5
- the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
- application layer
- network layer
- presentation layer
- session layer
- transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
- 0 to 255
- 49152 to 65535
- 1024 to 4915
- 10 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password arj15
Router(config-line)# login

- This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
- Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
- This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
- This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
- The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
- Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
- Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
- Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
- Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
- Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
- 10 BASE-T
- 1000 BASE-TX
- 10 BASE-2
- 1000 BASE LX
- 1000 BASE-SX

40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
- the host portion of the IP address
- the network portion of the IP address
- host default gateway address
- the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
- This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
- The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
- The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
- The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
- The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
- MAC address of the server and port number of the service
- IP address of the host and port number of the service
- MAC address of the host and port number of the service
- IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
- Router>
- Router(config-if)#
- Router#
- Router(config)#

44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
- telnet 192.168.1.1
- ping 192.168.1.1
- ftp 192.168.1.1
- tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
- timing and synchronization bits
- destination and source physical addresses
- destination and source logical network addresses
- destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
- The contents of ROM will change.
- The contents of RAM will change.
- The contents of NVRAM will change.
- The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
- 10.1.12.79/28
- 10.1.12.113/28
- 10.1.12.32/28
- 10.1.11.5/27
- 10.1.11.97/27
- 10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
- 192.168.1.191
- 192.168.1.101
- 192.168.1.1
- 192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
- It uniquely identifies each host.
- It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
- It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
- It is not a configurable address.
- It is a physical address.
- It identifies the host from the first part of the address.

1. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)

Switch

router

2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?

Seven


http://ccna-free.blogspot.com


3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?

segments 3, 4, and 5

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?

Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.

5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?

Physical

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?

Three

7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)

hub

repeater

8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)

a unique host IP address

the subnet mask for the LAN

the default gateway address

9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)

source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666

destination IP address: 192.168.10.134

10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?

14 networks / 14 hosts

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?

255.255.255.252

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?

Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.

14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

TFTP

DNS

15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?

1 and 2; 3 and 6

16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?

A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?

Cable C

18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)

255.255.255.240

255.255.192.0

19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?

Star

20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)

to connect a switch to a switch

to connect a hub to a switch

21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?

00-08-A3-B6-CE-02

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?

Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.

23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?

Router

24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?

The host discards the frame.

25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?

Session

26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?

100 Mbps

27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?

The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.

28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?

Network

29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?

A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?

Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.

31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?

straight-through cable

32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?

Layers 1, 2 and 3

33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?

The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.

34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?

It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.

35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?

Network

36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?

The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.

37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)

link A

link E

38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?

dynamic routing protocols

39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?

crossover

40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?

The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?

bits, frames, packets, segments, data

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?

straight-through

43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)

Token Ring

Ethernet

44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess?

Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.

45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)

uses port numbers

classified as a transport layer protocol

46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

172.16.192.160

47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?

subnetwork address

48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?

248

49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)

media used on the network system

bus used on the computer

50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

It is a media access method used in LANs.

When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.

Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.


2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
CIR
DE
• DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC

3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
There is no clock present on the serial interface.
The interface is shut down.
RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.

5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
The point is located between the customer's local area networks.

6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show interfaces serial 0/0
show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
show protocols serial 0/0
show status serial 0/0

7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.

8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.

9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast

11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
ITU-T Q.931
ITU-T I.430
ITU-T I.431

12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
create a full-mesh topology
disable Inverse ARP
use point-to-point subinterfaces
use multipoint subinterfaces
remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command

13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Add a clock rate on RouterA.
Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.

15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
disable inverse ARP

16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
1,2,3,4
1,3,2,4
2,3,1,4
2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
3,1,2,4

17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
NAT with DHCP
Frame Relay
HDLC with encryption
HDLC with CHAP
PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP

18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
create subinterfaces
define the LMI type
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
set the interface DLCI
set the switch type
specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF

19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
use PPP multilink
lower idle timer setting
use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles

20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.

21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.

22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.

23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
dial string
DLCI
idle time out
• interesting traffic
PVC

24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
Physical Layer, Network Layer

25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit is functioning properly.

26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.

27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.

28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
There is not a route to the remote router.
The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.

29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
active indicates that the ARP process is working.

30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.

31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29

32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.

33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
frame-relay pvc multipoint
frame-relay pvc point-to-point
encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
frame-relay lmi-type ansi

34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
X.25
DSL
ISDN
cable modem

35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
show dialer
show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
show interfaces serial0/0.1

36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
Install and configure a PRI.
Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.

37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.

38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
circuit-switched
• connection oriented
OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
reliable

39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication